it's a long time since

Sentence examples for It has been a long time since from inspiring English sources. RELATED ( 4 ) It has been a considerable time since. It has been a long while since. It has been a long haul since. It has been a long road since. exact ( 8 ) It has been a long time since N.F.C. 1 1. It's a long time since he last called me.-> He hasn't called me for a long time. 2. When did he get the job?-> How long ago did he get the job? 3. I advise you to book a table in advance-> If I were you, I would book a table in advance. 4. I don't want to tell them the secret-> I would rather not tell them the secret. 5. If I improved my Nobody but you, I love you (It's been a long time, it's been a long time) I love you, baby (It's been a long time since I been in love) I love you, uh-huh, ooh I love you, I love you, baby (It It has been a long time since we met. OK. It has been a long time without you. OK. It has been a long time to see you again. No. It could be: "It has been a long time. I am happy to see you again." or "I've waited a long time to see you again." It has been a long time not seeing you. OK, although possibly better as: "It has been a long time The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication (SP) 800-53 provides guidance for the selection of security and privacy controls for federal information systems and organizations. Revision 4 is the most comprehensive update since the. OCR Releases New HIPAA Audit Protocol and Business Associate Listing Template. The purpose of the study was to help fire managers, policy makers and community leaders understand the short- and long-term effects of wildfires so they can better plan for the challenges and. Aug 21, 2022 · Hagler said most of what experts can theorize about repeatedly breathing wildfire smoke comes from what the science generally says about tatimotfo1989. bridgeByABC7 Chicago Digital Team Sunday, June 11, 2023 338AMLONG GROVE, Ill. WLS - The historic Long Grove covered bridge was struck again on Saturday historic covered bridge has now been hit 50 times. The 48th time happened last Friday, and the 49th was on MORE Why do people keep hitting the Long Grove covered bridge?The Lake County Sheriff's Department said the 48th and 49th crashes were relatively minor and in both cases the drivers were are orange warning flags posted every few feet before the bridge, "No trucks or buses" signs and plenty of other signage warning of the 8 ft. 6 in. it reopened in 2020, the bridge had been closed for two years to repair major damage from yet another crash. It was rebuilt with steel reinforcements so now the vehicles take the brunt of the damage, not the video in the player above is from a previous © 2023 WLS-TV. All Rights Reserved. What about, 'It's been a long time since I've known her' - wouldn't that mean the same as I've known her for a long time? No. Why do you expect it to mean that? And how do you read this sentence? It means "I haven't known her for a long time." The reason I picked this example is that at least some native speakers interpret it to mean 'I've known her for years.' Really? Think about this example, for instance 'We've been friends ever since we've known each other' Yes, this one does mean "We've been friends as long as we've known each other" = "We've been friends ever since we first met", but I would call this use of "since" the illogical one. You see, if you look 'since' up in a dictionary, as a conjunction this word designates a certain point/event in the past after which something has been the case or has been going on until now or until some other point in the future or in the past. Not exactly. What you are saying here applies to "ever since" together with a present perfect in the main clause, not to every use of "since". Another example of "since" that does not mean "ever since" I have seen him three times since last year. The reason I say the use of the present perfect is 'illogical' after 'since' is because one would assume that since 'since' implies a certain point in time in the past when something happened/was the case the most logical tense to use after 'since' would be simple past. "Since" means something like "after", but "after" requires matching finite verb tenses in the two clauses. "Since" allows, for example, present tense in the main clause and past tense in the "since" clause. Ultimately saying something like, 'It's been years since I've seen him' is the same as saying ,'I've seen him many years ago,' if you follow the logic of what 'since' is supposed to mean. "It's been years since I've seen him" means "I haven't seen him in years" and is not at all like saying "I've seen him many years ago." The latter is indeed illogical, with an "ago" phrase modifying a present tense the "have" in "I've". We might say something like "I've seen him once, many years ago", but the comma makes the "ago" phrase parenthetical, a nondefining modifier for "once", not for "have". Imagine "which was", past tense, just after the comma. Note that "It's been years since I've seen him" does not mean "It's been years as long as I've seen him" or "It's been years that I've seen him" either. It uses the usual meaning of "since", not the exceptional one in "We've been friends ever since we've known each other". The exceptional meaning depends on two things that "since I've seen him" does not have 1 The "ever since" idea, as opposed to the "at least once since" as in my "three times since last year" above, and 2 something like "known" or "been living here", that can suggest continuity. "We've been friends since we've known each other" is ambiguous because knowing can be discontinuous, with a beginning and an end, and thus "since" might mean "at least once since". If you want to force the exceptional meaning of "since", you need to include the word "ever". Again, I could rationalise the use of present perfect in 'I've seen him many years ago' by suggesting that this sentence 'emphasises' the period of time over which I haven't seen him while 'I saw him many years ago' simply states the fact that me seeing him happened many years ago, or something to that effect. By the same token, your explanations about how 'It's been years since I last studied English' means, 'I last studied English many years ago,' while 'It's been years since I've studied English,' means 'I haven't studied English in years,' don't really explain anything but rather rationalise the existence of two different forms that essentially mean one and the same thing. Tell me what's the difference in meaning between 'I last studied English many years ago' and 'I haven't studied English in years.'? See my reply to Radioh. The pattern ' it's been years since + present perfect' is simply an idiom that people have gotten used to, but it doesn't make sense from the viewpoint of the semantics of 'since' or the way present perfect is used elsewhere in English. It does not match some "explanations" of present perfect, but it does make sense in terms of how present perfect is used elsewhere in English, and it jibes with my understanding of it. Consider the following examples of "It has been + amount-of-time + conjunction + present-perfect" It has been an hour once he has run half a mile. It has been an hour when he has run half a mile. It has been an hour after he has run half a mile. It has been an hour since he has run half a mile. There are subtle differences between "once", "when", "after", and "since", but the pattern is the same, and, semantically speaking, the "amount-of-time" in each case follows upon his completion of a half mile run. With "since", as with these other conjunctions, the "certain point" in the past being mentioned is the completion of the half mile run, not the beginning of it. In the same way the "long time" should logically follow my knowing her in "It has been a long time since I have known her" because the "certain point" in the past being reckoned from is the end of my knowing her, not the beginning of it. Now consider the following two sentences He gets caught before he has run half a mile. It is a long time since he has run half a mile. With "before", as with the other conjunctions, the time being reckoned from is the completion of the half mile run. "Since" is the opposite of "before", and just as "before he has run half a mile" refers to a time or a situation in which he has not run half a mile yet, "since he has run half a mile" refers to a time or a situation in which he is not running that half mile any more. And in either case the time when he has run half a mile = the moment of completion of his half-mile run does not have to exist. He may have begun the run but never reached the half-mile mark— or he may never have run at all. This is why I say that "It has been a long time since I have known her" does not presuppose that I have ever known her. Because present perfect after "since", like present perfect after "before", is essentially a negative context, we can say things like "It has been a long time since I have known anyone like her" but not *"I have known anyone like her for a long time", just as we can say "The protagonist, unfortunately, dies before he has ever met his mother" but not *"The protagonist has ever met his mother while he, unfortunately, dies." The source of the confusion in this thread is the ambiguity in how certain words and grammar patterns are used in English at least by some people. Plus the fact that most textbook emphasising British English don't teach the pattern 'It's been years since + present perfect', probably because in British English this pattern is regarded as non-standard or something like that. And apparently it is regarded as non-standard at least by some native speakers note the first reply in this thread. People are free to have their own opinions, but "It's been years since + present perfect" makes logical sense to me, as I have said, and I don't see any reason to censure it. West Ham are hoping to end their long wait for silverware when taking on Fiorentina in the Europa Conference League final on Wednesday the Championship play-off trophy, which they lifted in 2005 and 2012, and also the Intertoto Cup – a minor pre-season competition which West Ham won in 1999 before the tournament was scrapped in 2008 – the Hammers have not won a major final for more than 40 since 1980, in fact, when West Ham beat Arsenal 1-0 in the FA Cup final 43 years was West Ham’s third FA Cup triumph, having also won the competition in 1964 and ArticleThe Hammers would go on to lose the FA Cup final to Liverpool in 2006, denied on penalties after a stunning late equaliser from Steven Gerrard. They have never won the League Cup, losing the final in both 1966 and Europe, meanwhile, the Conference League final offers West Ham an opportunity for glory on the continent 58 years after they won European Cup Winners’ Cup in 1965 – beating 1860 Munich 2-0 in the final at Wembley. They would go on to finish runners-up in the European Cup Winners’ Cup in Moyes is therefore aware of what this victory would mean for the club, despite uncertainty over his future after they struggled in the Premier League this season, finishing 14th.“It is slightly surreal,” said Moyes. “To turn up and have your own dressing room is a big thrill for me. I really hope I can take it to the next level and win the game.“I’ve had a really good career since I started coaching at 35. Over a thousand matches, been in some finals, had some promotions. But this is the biggest moment. To be a coach for as long as I’ve been, you’re obviously doing something right. Football League second division Winners 1957-58, 1980-81 Runners-up 1922-23, 1990-91, 1992-93 Football League second division Play-Off Winners 2005, 2012 European Cup Winners’ Cup Winners 1965 Runners-up 1976 FA Cup Winners 1964, 1975, 1980 Runners-up 1923, 2006 UEFA Intertoto Cup Winners 1999 League Cup Runners-up 1966, 1981 “It’s great to be sitting here in a European final, for any manager it’s a thrill, one of the pinnacles you can get in football as a coach.“Hopefully it’s the start. I’ve always said the best years are still to come and I’m certainly enjoying the moment and being here.”West Ham also know victory in Wednesday’s final would seal a place in next season’s Europa League, a tournament they reached the semi-finals of last year. These two uses have subtly different meanings. "It has been years since I wrote my brother." Simple statement of fact that exists up to the present moment. "It had been years since I wrote my brother before he called me out of the blue." The "had been" implies that something happened afterward and whatever condition was true before is now in some way resolved. With that out of the way, the use of certain tenses with "has/had been" doesn't always make sense. "It's been years since I had ridden a bike" is mixed tense. The "it's been" implies an ongoing condition, but "had ridden" implies a past condition. In the same way "It'd been a whole two hours since he texted me," is OK, but again we're talking about a past condition that at that moment should be resolved. "It had been a whole two hours since he had texted me and then something else happened." We tend to make this less formal by using the simple past tense, but it's not really proper English. "It'd been way too long since he has had sex." You're mixing tenses again. "since he has had sex" implies an ongoing condition, but "It had been way to long" implies a past condition. You have to decide which is true "It has been way too long since he has had sex," or, "It had been way too long since he had sex," or even, "It had been way too long since he had had sex." The first one implies ongoing condition. The second two imply a condition that since has been resolved. The third one is actually good English, but in common practice the double "had" is condensed into one.

it's a long time since